Posted by Jurassosaurus [63.184.16.191 - sdn-ap-003caburbP0191.dialsprint.net] on 12 July 2002 at 01.04.31 ZuluTime:

In Reply to: no specific entities please posted by whoami on 11 July 2002 at 22.23.45 ZuluTime:

     Admittedly this is very little progress, but it is progress nonetheless.

So, we have now determined that the multitudinous, specialized gods of Greece (and since Romans were nothing more than dumb Greek copycats) & Rome are not considered to be gods in this debate. I take it that the Egyptian and Norse gods also fall in this category.

With that said, I'll now go out on a limb here and assume that polydeism is disqualified from this debate. We are dealing with one sole god. That, or some version of pantheism.

Okay, this is good; we have narrowed the definition of a god (and expanded its scope some).

In a previous post, you mentioned that this "proof" of yours is in the same realm as a mathematical theorem. So, I'm assuming we're dealing with a possible equation here?

Perhaps a probability theorem?