| 16 February 2003 at 11.27.52 ZuluTime
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Posted by jeremiahthirtythreethree [24.69.255.204 - px3wh.vc.shawcable.net] on 16 February 2003 at 11.27.52 ZuluTime:
In Reply to: ((((( sonic boom? ))))) posted by Gremlin on 16 February 2003 at 08.44.53 ZuluTime:
My guess is that you think the law of cause and effect has been rejected or nullified by contemporary science......no , it hasn't! if it was they wouldn't teach it as an introduction to mechanics in the highschool or use it in the college classroom. Even quantam mechanics has not ousted newtonian mechanics .Quantam mechanics speaks in regards to the microscopic (the way subatomic particles move and in the terms of statisticle probabilities)but as quantam mechanics relates to the macroscopic (that which is seen to the naked eye)the results are generally the same. For example...you boil some water on the stove. At the microscopic level the subatomic particles will move according to statistical probabilities ,true, but does that mean there is a possibility that the water will not boil if heated to over 100 celcius? The obvious answer is no.Newtonian mechanics is still relevent today. The effect of water boiling in a pot has an antecedent cause namely the hot element heating the pot. How long will it take for water to boil if no heat is applied? The answer is ...there is no amount of time you could give to make the water boil with out an outside force acting upon it ....it will never boil!Not even quantam mechanics\physics could make that water come to a boil. As stated earlier the result of causal relations at the macroscopic level are the same(the water needs heat to boil) and therefore the(newtonian(isaac newton)) principles of cause and effect are still relevent and applicable today.Every single day we affirm the principles of cause and effect but we probably don't notice because we're not thinking about it. We all know why we should look both ways before we cross the street! We don't stop looking both ways because of quantam physics do we?
I would argue that they can't know if all matter came into existence at some point in time or if it has always existed as you have said and simply has changed "forms" ( i don't know either way at this point). Having said that if you read my essay carefully I never said that the universe had a beginning rather I said if in fact their were ever a time when there was truly nothing then nothing could exist now because things which have no being produce no effects! The whole point of the essay was not to argue that the universe had a beginning but that something is ETERNAL. Personally... I would argue,that that which is eternal , is a personal being but I never argued for that in my essay, I had a different purpose in my essay as stated before. Is it possible this eternal energy is an extension of God, sustaining the universe!?....(hypothesis).......Anyways even though it sounded as though you were arguing against me I think in fact that we're on the same page...something is self existent, eternal and infinite(no ontological limits)! The next question is ...could that which is eternal be..."personal"(having self awareness,a will etc.)?
A!=A? what does the value of the exclamation mark represent? Are you denying the law of non contradiction? (a cannot equal, non a , at the same time and in the same relationship)For example ,I cannot be here and not be here at the same time and in the same relationship.
Tachyons as you have stated are caused.
I have confirmed the information above in regards to quantam,newtonian mechanics/physics with a friend who is working on his doctorate in mechanical engineering.
Jeremiahthirtythreethree